“The Impossibility of Knowledge of Retrocognitive Knowledge”, 2023-06-06 (; backlinks):
Is it possible to prove the existence of retrocognition if precognition also exists, because precognition could be used to foresee any proof found of retrocognition? Does this also disprove precognition as well?
A curious argument (1950) claims to disprove the opposite of ‘precognition’, ‘retrocognition’:
Because any proven case of retrocognition could actually be a case of precognition of the proof, we can either prove the existence of precognition or retrocognition; and because precognition has been scientifically proven (Sabine & others believe), therefore retrocognition is unprovable; and since one should not believe in the unprovable, retrocognition is false.
This argument resembles skeptical arguments in epistemology, and may be applicable to precognition itself.