Why is the "84% pure MDMA" figure still toted as the max purity?

We all know (or at least the ones with basic chemistry knowledge) that the whole 84% pure MDMA figure that has come to be said as the max purity that can be obtained when vendors (namely European ones) advertise their stuff is inaccurate and is only referring to the fact that any given amount of MDMA will, by mass, be 84% MDMA with the other 16% being the HCl salt it's bound to. Since the HCl is inactive, it's irrelevant to consider it as apart of the product you're getting, no one discusses their doses as being 84 mg MDMA when they take 100 mg, which is technically what they'd be getting. Is there a reason this is still a thing other than the inaccuracy somehow developed and no one knew anything different or to correct it?

This isn't a thing with any other drug that's in it's salt form like coke or anything else so it's strange that it's developed with MDMA. Kinda annoying, but am admittedly a mild chemistry nerd. Even if the vendors products are nearly top-notch purity but not 100% (rare if ever with any compound) it would still be far more accurate to range it at around 90-95%. Do we anticipate they will ever change this inaccuracy? It's not a big deal, just a slight annoyance.


Comments


[3 Points] iLoveDNM:

It's just how things worked out. No reasoning behind it, just caught on to refer to it like that.


[3 Points] galaxyandspace:

It's a selling point. That's all it is. Sheeple with minimal chemical knowledge read the explanation for the "84%", and come to interpret that number as meaning pure MDMA.

Do we anticipate they will ever change this inaccuracy?

not as long as it sells.

In total, don't worry so much about the people and marketing on the deepweb. For the most part, everyone is pretty smart, and know their drugs. It's the people that don't surf erowid that need the to have their inaccuracies fixed.


[1 Points] ChewyTheSheep:

This IS also done with cocaine unfortunately and I agree it is confusing. If you are buying Cocaine for sniffing (i.e. cocaine hydrochloride) the percentage you are interested in is the cocaine hydrochloride not the base cocaine. The hydrochloride is an integral part of the drug not an impurity! Same goes for MDMA etc.


[0 Points] None:

I think it was cocaine that was always talked about being pure as 84% and it just caught on with different drugs.


[0 Points] SunshineBlind:

As far as I know it's because about 16% of it has to be binding agens to keep it in it's chrystal form.


[-9 Points] NoobyDo:

Because any pill or powder advertised as MDMA can in reality only be 84% MDMA, therefore the 84% figure is still toted as the max purity. Why isn't this done for other drugs? Nobody knows or cares. Any more questions?